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DavidH



Joined: 14 Aug 2007
Posts: 18



PostPosted: Tue Aug 14, 2007 7:41 am    Post subject: Hello and comments... Reply with quote

There doesn't seem to be a place to say hello, so to speak, but hello anyway.
Hope you don't mind me hanging around here occasionally. I have actually viewed this board before but failed to join due to other commitments and message boards.

As most folk here know me, I won't spend a whole lot of time introducing myself. In fact, I'll not be around here much (so, apologies for some very late replies to postings Rolling Eyes )

Oh, as this is posted under the Bible versions argument (er.. discussion,) most folk know me as a user of the AV/KJV. My reasons for this are many, largely to do with that particular Bible having been the keystone for mission and revival for 400 years. It's an accurate translation from the "Received Text" (Textus Receptus) - That's the set of manuscripts that didn't originate from a Vatican dustbin or from a collection of the writings of some desert dwelling, reclusive heretics Wink .
Also, the proliferation of a huge number of variations on the Word, leaves the modern Christian unable to uniformly quote, or in some cases even recognise, the words of scripture.

Cheery
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paulvipond



Joined: 14 Nov 2006
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PostPosted: Tue Aug 14, 2007 12:17 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Eli wrote:
So why translate verse 20 differently then?

19“You shall not approach a woman to uncover her nakedness while she is in her menstrual uncleanness. 20And you shall not lie sexually with your neighbor’s wife and so make yourself unclean with her."

The shame of "Uncovering nakedness" goes way back to the Genesis account of Adam and Eve when they realised that they were au naturel. Admittedly, there is an element of some carnal knowledge in the passage you mentioned (if you're looking for it,) but uncovering nakedness isn't always sexual in content within the pages of the bible.

Consider the story of the drunken Noah's discovery by his son, Ham, in Genesis 9. There is little in the passage to suggest any untoward relations between Ham and his father, (just the possibility of some puerile, ribald comment to his brothers,) but the behaviour of Shem and Japheth is telling. They reversed towards the sleeping Noah with a garment without actually casting eyes on him. The shame was in the nakedness, not the potential sexual contact.

If we understand the shame attached to nakedness throughout the bible, it gives an increased understanding of Jesus sayings in Matthew 25:34f

God's people ain't naturists!


Thanks, Eli. While deflecting me from my original question a wee bit your post threw me back onto a range of commentaries. The general consensus is the "cover nakedness" is a euphemism for sexual intercourse. The difference in v20 is that reference is no longer to a blood relative. Lev 18:6-19 avoids the blunt term incest.
More interestingly still is that v7 clearly states that uncovering the "nakedness of your father" is the same as uncovering "the nakedness of your mother". Presumably a reflection that married couples are one and cannot be viewed separately in this context. Incest being condemned for both moral and consanguinity reasons. So looking at Ham in Gen 9 we may have reference not to nudity but to maternal incest.

Anyway back to where we were with dynamic equivalence. Your post highlights the potential we all have for misunderstanding by taking a literal translation + adding the assumption that the words then have a literal meaning. Not that I have yet found anyone who really think that the "trees of the field" are really going to grow hands so that they can clap them. Smile [Isa 55:12]

A question for everyone then. Where literal translation demonstrates an alien idiom ("uncovering nakedness") are we at liberty to find a contemporary idiom? This is a slightly different question to Countrydancer's, "how do you translate "snow" and "camel" in Papua New Guinea which has neither"?

By the way, "Quietman", thanks for your confirmation that the "little woman" bought you a Reformation Bible not a reformed one! Laughing
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Eli



Joined: 31 Jul 2007
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PostPosted: Tue Aug 14, 2007 3:19 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

paulvipond wrote:


Thanks, Eli. While deflecting me from my original question a wee bit your post threw me back onto a range of commentaries.


What filthy minded commentaries you have, paulvipond!

However, since incest wasn't actually forbidden until the law of Moses, why would Noah have cursed Ham's son (who presumably would have been the result of the "uncovering" of Mrs Noah's nakedness?) As there were only eight people surviving the flood, incest would have been pretty much inescapable, which is why it wasn't forbidden until much later on.

The old atheist question, about where Cain got his wife, is easily answered if you take God's Word as it is written rather than depend on some commentator's view (the majority of whom cross reference their source material anyway.)

Anyway, what's alien about uncovering nakedness? It reminds me of the story of the NIV translators who were looking for a more culturally relevant term to replace the "Fatted Calf" in the parable of the lost son. They went to Smithfield market in London and asked the "professionals" what they currently called the item. To their dismay, the butcher said "we calls 'em fatted calves, sir".

Translating "snow" and "camel" in PNG needn't present any more problems than translating "sand" and "sword" for the Eskimos. I watched a documentary on TV a while back about some PNG tribespeople, who were filmed as they experienced life in England. They were really excited when they experienced snow for the first time. They'd heard all about it but hadn't seen it and, up until then, had accepted the description on faith...

Whoah, that has implications, doesn't it?

Isn't that what a big chunk of Hebrews 11 is about?

Why not ask about the "Behemoth" and "Leviathan" (KJV - Job 40-41) in current culture? They didn't even exist in 1611 when King James' translators were working. The description is usually guessed at by modern scholars as the "hippopotamus" and "crocodile". However, the description better fits some of the extinct (larger) dinosaurs that we see in our museums. OK, they're not around today but why, for the sake of "dynamic equivalence" make them something else entirely? We have evidence of animals that are no longer with us but were probably around in Job's time.

Changing the words to make things fit doesn't always make things work.

Oh, and if God can raise up children to Abraham from stones (Matthew 3:9), He can sure give hands to trees Wink
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paulvipond



Joined: 14 Nov 2006
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PostPosted: Wed Aug 15, 2007 8:00 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I concede, Eli, I hadnt thought about Noah's progeny.

This is probably diverging now to where a new thread would be appropriate. For the moment however can I venture the following:
1. Marriage was holy even before the giving of torah. So it is highly unlikely that Noah and his sons practiced wife and mother swapping. Far more likely that the grandchildren inter-married. Even now 1st cousin marriage is legal.
2. Your fatted calf analogy only works because the question was asked of butchers - and how many of them new that the root word meant "grain fed"? A true test might be to ask the same question to the local florist!
3. I suspect you dont really think Lev 18:6-19 is really just about a prohibition on undressing your blood relatives. Otherwise v18 means you can undress a woman providing her sister is dead. Naah, I dont think so Wink
4. Yes the PNG people were excited, so would I be if I got to go to PNG. The point of "white as snow" in the scriptures is not about snow though is it? Its about cleanliness and purity. So in PNG "white as a cockatoos wing" works for me.
5. And yes God could genetically grow hands on trees. But that is not what the scripture is saying is it?

At the end of the day if we end up needing preachers and teachers to explain to us what "white as snow" [or whatever] means in context how far removed from "dynamic equivalence" is that? Shocked
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DavidH



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PostPosted: Fri Aug 17, 2007 10:18 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

In possibly my only reply to this continuing thread, I will state my views on dynamic equivalence and my preference for the KJV.

God divinely inspired the Scriptures. Paul tells us this, or rather reminds us of it, in his second letter to Timothy. Putting his comments into context, Timothy was having difficulty with his church (How culturally relevant is that? Wink ) Paul reminds him to stick with what he knows - the Scriptures, the Word of God that was taught to him by his mother and grandmother. Now, I'm aware that Timothy wouldn't have had the benefit of computers, printing presses or new translations but surely there was a whole set of matters in the fellowship that could only be settled using the tool that God had provided for the purpose. It was the same tool that the faithful Bereans had used to check whether Paul was preaching the truth. There were no translations, just the Hebrew/Aramaic writings of God's inspired people.

fast forward now, for the sake of relative brevity

In the middle ages, the growing Roman church tried to hide the scriptures from what it viewed to be the "laity" or common people. "Let common people read the bible and, well, who knows what might happen?" Any version of the Bible left carelessly lying around the church was in Latin anyway. Only the clergy were generally educated enough to read, in contrast to 99.9% of Hebrew children who were (and still are,) taught to read the scriptures from a very early age. The "Church" hid the truth until brave men like William Tyndale used the new technology of the time to present the Word of God in language readable by the "laity".

Sadly, what passed for the "Church" at the time saw to it that the translators received their heavenly reward early by putting them to death. Tyndale himself was imprisoned for 500 days before he was strangled and burned at the stake in 1536. His last words were, "Lord, open the eyes of the King of England". In the 1550's, under the protection of John Calvin, no less, a translation was made in Geneva that ultimately became the "Geneva Bible" (the first to add chapter and verse numbers). Other translations followed, mainly revisions to amend printing mistakes and other trivial stuff but the "Geneva Bible" became the "standard" for the English speaking people for the next 50 or so years.

With the accession of King James I to the throne of England, the Protestant clergy approached him in 1604 and announced their desire for a new translation to replace the Bishop's Bible first printed in 1568. They knew that the Geneva Version had won the hearts of the people because of its excellent scholarship, accuracy, and exhaustive commentary. However, they did not want the controversial marginal notes (proclaiming the Pope as an Anti-Christ, etc.) Essentially, they wanted a Bible for the people, with scriptural references only for word clarification when different meanings were possible.

This "translation to end all translations" was the result of the combined effort of about fifty scholars. In addition to the Greek and Hebrew manuscripts, they relied heavily on Tyndale's New Testament, The Coverdale Bible, The Matthews Bible, The Great Bible, The Geneva Bible, and even used the Rheims New Testament. The great revision of the Bishop's Bible had begun. From 1605 to 1606 the scholars engaged in private research. From 1607 to 1609 the work was assembled. In 1610 the work went to press, and in 1611 the first KJV rolled off the printing press. For the next 400 years, the KJV was the bible of both pulpit and pew.

This was the very core of the "churched" society referred to in other posts on this board. Is it coincidence that the moral breakdown of our "Christian Nation" began around the turn of the 20th century, shortly after the publication of the Revised Version, the first major revision of the KJV in hundreds of years (and the first from the Alexandrian manuscripts that make up the Nestle-Aland Greek NT.)

The KJV translators were deeply conscious that they were not just dealing with translating a bunch of dusty old papers but they were handling the "lively oracles of God." They knew that God didn't speak in a common vernacular (He spoke like GOD,) and had terminology that was all His own. "King James English" wasn't actually spoken by any of King James' subjects, even the very posh ones with lots of education and not even King James himself spoke like this - the "language" of the KJV was specially formulated to retain the patterns and flow of the Hebrew and Greek. If you don't believe me, check the style of Shakespeare's plays against that of the KJV - they just aren't the same, yet were written around the same time. No, they didn't employ Will as a style-consultant either. In ordinary speech, folk referred to each other as "you" in spite of how many of "you" there were. "Thee/thou" and "You" were retained in the KJV to indicate singulars and plurals to make it easy, for example, for people to follow whether Jesus was speaking to an individual disciple or to a crowd.

I know that there are words in the KJV that don't appear in the original manuscripts but in the vast majority of editions, these words appear in italics. You don't get this honesty in any other translation that I'm aware of (although someone will doubtless find one somewhere Laughing )

Finally, the methods used in dynamic equivalence give far too much leeway for the presuppositions of the translators to be grafted onto the Word. The NIV (for example) contains many scripture-twisting howlers that are squarely down to dynamic equivalence and, in some cases, the very distinctive preferences of the translators (and I'm not talking about their Calvinist position either.) In fact, it is so bad in a couple of places that it actually equates Jesus with Satan - How wonderful is that? - I don't think.

So, folks, that's why I stick with the old King. The language isn't as difficult as some would have you believe and, to be honest, a lot of people in our part of the world still use "thee" and "thou" in everyday speech. "Illiterate" miners and factory workers of the 18th and 19th century could manage to understand it, why can't the "universally educated" public of the 21st?

As the saying goes "KJV - It Ruleth! OK!" Laughing

There have been hundreds of new translations to suit all kinds of fads and fancies but if you choose a version of the Bible based on whether it agrees with your own ideas about God and society, surely the cart is before the horse? A bit like the JW's did with their NWT.

Incidentally, for a written work to be "copyrightable" it has to be 10% different to anything else in its field. This probably explains the rigid adherence to dynamic equivalence, which gives licence to change things to a state whereby they may be copyrighted (and thereby make money.)

Also, how many people know that the NIV publishers are part of Rupert Murdoch's News Corporation? Interesting that the "News Of The World" "The Sun" and a chain of pornographic movie channels on satellite and cable come from the same stable as this Bible translation. Crying or Very sad

Sorry about the length - got carried away a bit... Embarassed
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Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come:
and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.
Rev 14:7
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Last edited by DavidH on Fri Aug 17, 2007 3:25 pm; edited 5 times in total
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DavidH



Joined: 14 Aug 2007
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 17, 2007 10:33 am    Post subject: For God So Loved The World Reply with quote

Just on a point of interest, we all know John 3:16, or do we?


"God lufode middan-eard swa, dat he seade his an-cennedan sunu, dat nan ne forweorde de on hine gely ac habbe dat ece lif."

is from an early translation into Anglo-Saxon in 995AD

"For God so loueth the world, that he hath geuen his only begotten Sonne: that none that beleue in him, should peryshe, but haue euerlasting lyfe."

is the Geneva version (1557)

"For God so loued the world, that he gaue his only begotten Sonne: that whosoeuer beleeueth in him, should not perish, but haue euerlasting life."

is the first edition (1611) of the KJV

Notice in all, there is the phrase "only begotten" (or "an-cennedan" in A/S, which equates to the same thing).

In most modern versions this is rendered as "one and only" or "only" son. Whilst the word "begotten" isn't commonly used today, it does actually give the true translation and a source for our understanding about the relationship between the Son and the Father. After all, God did have more sons than Jesus (Genesis 6:2-4) but only one that was begotten (or born of man)

Just a thought
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DavidH



Joined: 14 Aug 2007
Posts: 18



PostPosted: Mon Sep 17, 2007 2:05 pm    Post subject: On Another Point Reply with quote

Sorry if this has been posted anywhere else but...

The "Electronic" Bible that I use is called E-Sword.
It's free and downloadable from http://www.e-sword.net/
(don't forget the hyphen in e-sword. If you type "esword.net" you get someone trying to sell you Swiss Army knives)

It has multitudes of Bible versions (including the ESV - copyright free, I notice Very Happy for all you modern ESV types out there.) It also has loads of commentaries and dictionaries, Greek, Hebrew and a host of other goodies and all for the princely sum of...
...Nothing! You can't beat the price.

It certainly improves the speed of referencing and it makes your paper concordance virtually extinct.

It's easy to set up and the basic module has the program plus the KJV text of the Bible with Easton's commentary. Then you go mad, downloading all the modules and filling up your hard drive.

Sadly, it is only available for Windoze but if you have Linux or Apple systems, "Sword" is free and almost as widely supported.
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Darthmiller



Joined: 03 Mar 2007
Posts: 27



PostPosted: Fri Sep 21, 2007 11:18 pm    Post subject: Re: For God So Loved The World Reply with quote

DavidH wrote:
Just on a point of interest, we all know John 3:16, or do we?


"God lufode middan-eard swa, dat he seade his an-cennedan sunu, dat nan ne forweorde de on hine gely ac habbe dat ece lif."

is from an early translation into Anglo-Saxon in 995AD

"For God so loueth the world, that he hath geuen his only begotten Sonne: that none that beleue in him, should peryshe, but haue euerlasting lyfe."

is the Geneva version (1557)

"For God so loued the world, that he gaue his only begotten Sonne: that whosoeuer beleeueth in him, should not perish, but haue euerlasting life."

is the first edition (1611) of the KJV

Notice in all, there is the phrase "only begotten" (or "an-cennedan" in A/S, which equates to the same thing).

In most modern versions this is rendered as "one and only" or "only" son. Whilst the word "begotten" isn't commonly used today, it does actually give the true translation and a source for our understanding about the relationship between the Son and the Father. After all, God did have more sons than Jesus (Genesis 6:2-4) but only one that was begotten (or born of man)

Just a thought
As I understand it the Greek reads more like this "For thus loved God the world, that the son, the unique one, he gave that everyone believing him may not perish but have life eternal."

source- Greek New Testament, United Bible society.

The word begotten puts emphasis on the humanity of Christ. The Catholic Church preferred to emphasize the divinity of Christ where as the Anglican Church favored emphasizing the humanity of Christ.

Just a thought
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DavidH



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PostPosted: Mon Sep 24, 2007 7:19 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Not sure what Greek version the UBS uses but I suspect that it's the Alexandrian sourced Nestle concoction that relies on dodgy ex-Vatican "older" manuscripts. Proper translations use the majority text. However...

Strong's reads thus for the word that is translated from the TR as "only-begotten" in the KJV and the ASV and the NKJV

G3439
μονογενής
monogenēs
mon-og-en-ace
From G3441 and G1096; only born, that is, sole: - only (begotten, child).

It doesn't take an ace linguist to work out that mono means one or only and genes has the same thing going on that genetics does.

The problem here, so I'm told as I'm no Greek scholar*, is a misunderstanding of the Greek language by modern "issue driven" translators. The word monogenes means one or unique in the sense that an only child is the only one of his parents. It does not mean unique, as in special, such as in the phrase, "his style of painting is unique." Here the Greek would be monadikos, not monogenes. In the New Testament the word monogenes is used eight times. In every case it is used to describe a relationship between a parent and child (Luke 7:12; 8:42; 9:38; John 1:14; 3:16, 18; Hebrews 11:17; 1 John 4:9). Since this is how the Holy Spirit uses the word in the New Testament, we must accept this definition when reading John 3:16.

* I'm pretty glad I don't have to be one. I'd never have been saved if my linguistic ability were a qualification. God saw to it that I had the Bible in English. I've found, over the years, that it is generally those who don't like what God's Word says in plain English that are the first to resort to the smokescreen of scholarship and alternative "translations" to prove a point. The Jehovah's Witnesses do this in their "New World Translation". Rick Warren does it (in his "Purpose Driven Church") by using so many "translations" as to confound his readers. The "Emergents" (if they use the Bible at all) try to draw inferences from the writings of heretical medieval (and modern) mystics. All this is supposed to be enlightening. Instead, it creates division (like here on the Seedfield forum).

Either we have God's Word or we don't. We can't have both states of being. Who decides? - God does. He speaks to His people through His Word today. The Bible is a closed book to those who are not in the faith. It cannot be understood without a living relationship with the writer.

If we want to spend our time re-translating the Word into what we currently find acceptable or PC (like the NIV does) it is a very sad reflection on the state of a church that can't seem to accept God's Word at face value.

The thing is, to be grateful that you have a Bible (of any sort) in your hand. So many Christians in the world would quite literally die for a copy of even the most awful translation. Indeed, they do so in large numbers**. Thousands died, even in this country, for the publication of the Geneva Bible and the King James Version. They were tortured and burned at the stake or strangled so that you and I could have the Bible for ourselves.

** For this reason, I hope that we're all going to boycott the next Olympic Games in Beijing. China actively persecutes Christians for the simple wish to have the Scriptures in their own languages.
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Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come:
and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.
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Darthmiller



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PostPosted: Mon Sep 24, 2007 9:59 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Strange I thought it wasn't to do with the age of the manuscript, I thought it was down to not knowing the proper translation of monogenes and having to choose between to Greek root verbs, one which which means "to become" (GINOMAI) and one which means "to beget" (GENNAO).

And just out of interest what makes them "proper" translations?

And answers on a post card: Is older better in terms of source manuscripts or is newer better?

Do translators today have more or less of an agenda than they did in centuries past?

(just so you all know I do not care about this topic really. I read as many translations and versions as I can get my hands on and pray that God through the Holy Spirit will ensure I get the message)



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